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Volt

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Posts posted by Volt

  1. It's interesting, isn't it? I think 10 to 20 years ago, it was definitely cool to be cruel online. It was probably because anonymity was the norm, and you didn't know who the other person was (and nobody knew who you were). But now that everybody puts their lives online, there's a push to be kinder to each other. I'm not a fan of the reduced anonymity, but it's nice to see everyone try to be a bit less of a jerk.

     

    Edit: Oh yeah, some of us grew up too I guess. I'm in my thirties now D:

  2. Diracy;770883']Don't worry guys' date=' it's still 5 year old outdated technology.[/quote']

    At least the Wii was two GameCubes duct taped together. This is even worse.

    EDIT: The Kotaku link right beside that statement says that it will be more powerful, not comparable.

    GAMEPLAY

    More like foreplay?

  3. You guys cry too much.

    It was a silly thing to say. Saying that Pixar movies are too G-rated would likely get you the same reaction.

    I have no interest in the majority of games that are out on current Nintendo systems is basically what I'm saying.

    That's probably what you should have said in the first place, since it reflects your preferences more than what could have only been assumed to be a supposed failure on Nintendo's part.

  4. what i'm trying to say is that the dual-core beta is a beta, dumbass. it's not the same client as the single-core full-release model. since i only run the client when i'm not touching my machine, i want to make sure it doesn't eat my hard drive or something while i'm not there monitoring system performance. and i'd like to run F@H on both cores when i'm not there.

    even if you run it, that's only a single-core machine (or at least a really shitty one, according to your post). things work differently with two cores running simultaneously (which is how it works).

    LOL

    Obviously it was a mistake trying to help you. Sorry.

  5. What are you trying to say? Even if my computer has a single-core CPU, the experience should be the same using the SMP client. My point is that you can fold your proteins while using your machine normally and you won't notice the difference even though it's always running.

    I'm trying to help you out here.

  6. so, i run a very powerful dual-core box, windows x86. is the SMP client gonna fry my box, or is it stable enough to use in a normal windows environment (only running when i'm not using the computer)?

    It only uses up spare CPU cycles. I don't even notice it running. Besides my CPU meter being pegged.

    I'm GigaVolt on Folding@Home, BTW, but you don't even have to add me to the "official" list since my computer is so slow that my contributions are almost irrelevant.

  7. I can't help but feel that kind of screwed things up by making this thread. It seems like all this speculating and asking questions is getting the way or at least making the process more difficult. Maybe it would be best to close this thread, that way you don't have worry about saying anything before the time is right. I'm sorry if I caused OCR a lot of problems with this.

    Relax. If you didn't make this thread, someone else would have. Like me.

    When I watched the interview a few days ago and the Capcom rep mentioned remixed music, my first thought was, "Blood on the Asphalt?" Glad to see some tracks potentially included.

  8. This topic is back and badder than ever.

    Here's the question I have for you kids. In Intro to Topolgy, we were asked if the intervals (0,1) and (0,1] were homeomorphic, that is, if there is a bijective continuous function f:(0,1)->(0,1] whose inverse was also continuous.

    The problem was solved by talking about continuity - assuming such a function exists, and coming to a contradiction from its continuity. Therefore, they weren't homeomorphic. But what I'm wondering is, is there a bijection between the two spaces, regardless of continuity? I want to say no, but perhaps someone here can think of one?

    Well, I can't explicitly construct one, but one can talk about cardinality. The cardinality of [0, 1] = the cardinality of the real numbers (which is uncountably infinite). The cardinality of (0, 1) = [0, 1] - {0, 1} is also equal to the cardinality of [0, 1] by cardinal arithmetic. Similarly, the cardinality of (0, 1] = [0, 1] - {0} is also the cardinality of [0, 1]. Now, by definition of cardinality, two sets have the same cardinality if there exists a bijection between the two.

    Fair enough. I've never heard cardinality be defined that way, but it certainly makes sense. And now that I'm thinking about it, I guess we want there to be a bijection intuitively anyway. We'll let f-inverse(1)=1/2, and let the inverse function map the rest of (0,1) evenly on either side of 1/2. If that makes any sense... :)

    AAAHHH JESUS CHRIST MAKE IT STOP :(:(:(

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