Native Jovian Posted December 9, 2008 Posted December 9, 2008 postcount +1 I see what you did there. Quote
Bahamut Posted December 9, 2008 Posted December 9, 2008 I'll take on any (legit) math question. Quote
The Pezman Posted December 9, 2008 Posted December 9, 2008 Prove it in a way we can reasonably understand. Quote
Bahamut Posted December 9, 2008 Posted December 9, 2008 Prove it in a way we can reasonably understand. Read this: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Exponential_function#On_the_complex_plane Basically it boils down to the Taylor series representations for sin, cos, and exp adding up correctly. Quote
Reaif Posted December 9, 2008 Posted December 9, 2008 Read this: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Exponential_function#On_the_complex_planeBasically it boils down to the Taylor series representations for sin, cos, and exp adding up correctly. Wow Taylor series... It's been a while. Though I am definitely going to have to refresh on it, because I have to take calc 3 next semester, and I hear they use a lot of series' in that class... *Sigh* But seriously, I am probably screwing myself over next semester. So far I am signed up for Linear Algebra, Calc 3, Engineering Dynamics, and Chemistry (one of the earliest ones). Sounds like a death trap to me. Quote
Steben Posted December 11, 2008 Posted December 11, 2008 Read this: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Exponential_function#On_the_complex_planeBasically it boils down to the Taylor series representations for sin, cos, and exp adding up correctly. Breaking it down a little more... Take e^(xi) and turn it into its Taylor series expansion. By computing the i-part of each term (i^0=1, i^1=i, i^2=-1, i^3=-i, etc.), you can then rearrange stuff like above. You get the Taylor expansion of cos(x) plus i times the Taylor expansion of sin(x). Plug in pi for x and you get cos(pi)+i*sin(pi) = -1 + i*0 = -1. Quote
Bahamut Posted December 11, 2008 Posted December 11, 2008 Breaking it down a little more... Take e^(xi) and turn it into its Taylor series expansion. By computing the i-part of each term (i^0=1, i^1=i, i^2=-1, i^3=-i, etc.), you can then rearrange stuff like above. You get the Taylor expansion of cos(x) plus i times the Taylor expansion of sin(x). Plug in pi for x and you get cos(pi)+i*sin(pi) = -1 + i*0 = -1. Yeah, I was too lazy to TeX up the proof...but that's the specifics. Quote
angcdixon Posted December 11, 2008 Posted December 11, 2008 someone help please!! can you show me how to do these problems: f(x)= square root of x g(x)= 1-2x 1) (fog)(x) 2) (gof)(x) 3) (fog)(-4) 4) (gof)(-4) 5) 2g(-1) - 3g(-1) 6) 2f(-9) the answers are as follows: 1. square root of (1-2x) 2. 1 - (2 sqrt of x) 3. 3 4. 1-4i 5. -3 6. 6i i just need to know HOW to get the answers!! please and thank you Quote
Bahamut Posted December 11, 2008 Posted December 11, 2008 let's try this again: Nothing shows up. someone help please!!can you show me how to do these problems: f(x)= square root of x g(x)= 1-2x 1) (fog)(x) 2) (gof)(x) 3) (fog)(-4) 4) (gof)(-4) 5) 2g(-1) - 3g(-1) 6) 2f(-9) the answers are as follows: 1. square root of (1-2x) 2. 1 - (2 sqrt of x) 3. 3 4. 1-4i 5. -3 6. 6i i just need to know HOW to get the answers!! please and thank you (f o g)(x) = f(1 - 2x) = (1 - 2x)^(1/2) (square root of 1 - 2x) (g o f)(x) = g(x^(1/2)) = 1 - 2(x)^(1/2) 3 & 4 you just plug in x = whatever number 2g(-1) - 3g(-1) = -g(-1) = - (1 - 2(-1)) = - ( 1 + 2 ) = -3 2f(-9) = 2 * (-9)^(1/2) = 2 * (9)^(1/2) * (-1)^(1/2) = 2 * 3 * i = 6i Quote
Red Shadow Posted December 11, 2008 Posted December 11, 2008 yeah i directed her question here before realizing i could help her with it, which was done she'll likely ask other stuff that ive decided to forget, however Quote
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